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"You have come to Mount Zion and to the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, to an innumerable company of angels, to the general assembly and church of the firstborn who are registered in heaven, to God the Judge of all, to the spirits of just men made perfect, to Jesus the Mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling that speaks better things ... " Hebrews 12:22-24 NKJV "This heavenly Jerusalem is the Church, that is to say the number of all believers throughout the world, having one and the same Gospel, one and the same faith in Christ, one and the same Holy Ghost, and the same sacraments." ~ Martin Luther, Commentary on the Epistle to the Galatians (verse 4:26)

p3 Mat 19:9 What Jesus said about Divorce-Remarriage & Adultery

Wed, 12/02/2009 - 12:50 — John@HeavenlyJe...
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Mat 19:9NKJV

A2) Whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality (porneias), and marries another, commits adultery (moichatai);
        and
B2)  whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery (moichatai).

 

A2) Whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality (porneias), and marries another, commits adultery (moichatai);
 

The controversy over how this half a verse is to be understood involves how the Greek term "PORNEIAS" is understood:

Let us focus again upon just the first half A2) since the second half B2) is in solid agreement with all the verses under scrutiny.

 

TWO WAYS TO UNDERSTAND "(PORNEIAS) SEXUAL IMMORALITY"

PORNEIAS = the 'marriage' itself is a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, an unlawful sham 'marriage' ~Catholic & Orthodox

PORNEIAS = the husband or wife has had a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, during the marriage ~Western  Protestant

 

Breaking it down
Whoever (man) divorces his wife (woman)
A2.0)................................................................................................and he marries another ................. he commits adultery
A2.1) because .........(PORNEIAS) sexually immoral relationship and he marries another he DOES NOT commit adultery
A2.1M)............their 'marriage' was actually a sexually immoral relationship and he marries another he DOES NOT commit adultery
A2.1W)...............the wife.......had a sexually immoral relationship and he marries another he DOES NOT commit adultery ???
A2.1H)................the husband had a sexually immoral relationship and he marries another he DOES NOT commit adultery ???
A2.1H&W)................BOTH had sexually immoral relationships and he marries another he DOES NOT commit adultery ??? 

 

 
 
 
ANALYSIS OF POSSIBLE MEANINGS:

A2.1M) PORNEIAS = the "marriage'" itself is actually a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, a sham "marriage"

Whoever (man) divorces his wife because the marriage itself is actually a sexually immoral relationship (porneias) and marries another, he DOES NOT commit adultery.

This is crystal clear and in complete harmony with the all the other verses – they were never lawfully married to begin with. Their divorce was actually REPENTING from unlawful sexual relationship (their unlawful “marriage”).  And their "marriage" relationship is recognised openly for the unlawful sexual relationship that it was and is then publically "anulled," the repentant couple being granted an "anullment," (fancy words for "divorce from unlawful, sham 'marriage' ").  Whether a man marries his sister or he marries another man or he marries a woman who is lawfully married to another man, it is still an unlawful sexual relationship, an unlawful "marriage."  Jesus announces no penalty from repenting from such via divorce, (anulment), and moving on to a lawful marriage to a truly elegible bachellorette.

 

A2.1W) Guilty Wife  PORNEIAS = wife has had a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, during the marriage

Whoever (man) divorces his wife because she had a sexually immoral relationship and he then marries another, he DOES NOT commit adultery.???

Wife has affair...., husband then divorces her and marries another woman and its NOT called adultery for him. QUESTIONABLE. Here's why that is confused and untenable, the implications:

  1. Whoever "marries" this guilty woman commits adultery along with her because God still sees her married to her first husband, Mat 19:9b (B2).
  2. But her husband "remarries" another woman and its not adultery at all – because God no longer sees this husband married to his first wife.
  3. The above two results have God divided against Himself as to whether or not He still regards the original husband&wife couple as “one flesh.”
 

 

A2.1H) Guilty Husband  PORNEIAS = husband has had a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, during the marriage

Whoever (man) divorces his wife because he had a sexually immoral relationship and he then marries another, he DOES NOT commit adultery.???

Husband has affair.... guilty husband then divorces his innocent wife and marries another woman, and its NOT called adultery. WRONG, Mark 10:11 & Luke 16:18 (A1).  Here's why that is confused and utterly untenable, the implications:

  1. Whoever "marries" this innocent woman commits adultery along with her because God still sees her married to her first husband, Mat 19:9b (B2), "whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery."
  2. But her guilty husband "remarries" another woman and its not adultery at all for him – because God no longer sees this husband married to his first wife "because of the sexual immorality (porneias) that occured."
  3. The above two results have God divided against Himself as to whether or not He still regards the original husband&wife couple as “one flesh.”  Worse, it has God permitting remarriage for the guilty husband but condemning remarriage for the innocent wife.

 

 A2.1H&W) BOTH Guilty Husband & guilty Wife  PORNEIAS = both partners have had a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, during the marriage 

Whoever (man) divorces his wife (woman) because BOTH of them had sexually immoral relationships and he marries another he DOES NOT commit adultery.???

 

Husband has affair.... wife also has affair... guilty husband then divorces his guilty wife and he marries another woman, and its NOT called adultery. WRONG, Mark 10:11 & Luke 16:18 (A1).  Here's why that is confused and utterly untenable, the implications:

  1. Whoever "marries" this guilty woman commits adultery along with her because God still sees her married to her first husband, Mat 19:9b (B2), "whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery."
  2. But her equally guilty husband "remarries" another woman and its not adultery at all for him – because God no longer sees this husband married to his first wife "because of the sexual immorality (porneias) that occurred."
  3. The above two results have God divided against Himself as to whether or not He still regards the original husband&wife couple as “one flesh.”  Worse, it has God permitting remarriage for the guilty husband but condemning remarriage for the guilty wife.

 

 

 

 

IN SUMMARY: Which is Jesus really teaching here?  God is NOT the author of confusion, 1 Cor 14:33.

Husband divorces his wife.…………………………………………………..……………….and marries another……..…………commits adultery.
'Husband' divorces his 'wife' because the 'marriage' itself is actually a sexually immoral relationship (porneias) and marries another DOES NOT commit adultery. (He is actually just repenting of a sexually immoral relationship and going on to its cure, a lawful marriage).
 
OR
 
Innocent husband divorces his innocent wife and marries another…………………commits adultery (moichatai).
Innocent husband divorces his…….guilty wife and marries another DOES NOT commit adultery? BUT SHE DOES B2) Mat 19:9NKJV
Guilty…….husband divorces his…….guilty wife and marries another DOES NOT commit adultery? BUT SHE DOES B2) Mat 19:9NKJV
Guilty…….husband divorces his innocent wife and marries another DOES NOT commit adultery? BUT SHE DOES B2) Mat 19:9NKJV
Guilty…….husband divorces his guilty wife and marries another DOES NOT commit adultery? BUT SHE DOES B2) Mat 19:9NKJV

 

 

  What has been outlined here so far is just a brief introduction to the confusion that arises when Jesus phrase, "except for sexual immorality (porneias), " is taken to mean "except for a single act of sexual immorality within a marriage."  By this definition, who can ever identify which remarriages are really adultery?  In order to preach repentence? In order to repent?  In order to obey the Bible and avoid the adulterers who call themselves fellow Chrstians?  "I am writing you that you must not associate with anyone who calls himself a brother but is sexually immoral or greedy, an idolater or a slanderer, a drunkard or a swindler. With such a man do not even eat. 12 What business is it of mine to judge those outside the church? Are you not to judge those inside? 13 God will judge those outside. 'Expel the wicked man from among you.' "  1 Corinthians 5:11-13NIV  Run a concordance search of the word "adultery" and understand that God expects us to identify it plainly.  God is NOT the author of confusion, 1 Cor 14:33.
 

 

1 Timothy 6:3-4 NKJV
“If anyone teaches otherwise and does not consent to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which accords with godliness, he is proud, knowing nothing, but is obsessed with disputes and arguments over words”

Matthew 24:35
Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
KJV
 

Scriptures cited from New King James Version unless otherwise noted.

"The spiritual is not first, but the natural, and afterward the spiritual.  The first man was of the earth, made of dust; the second Man is the Lord from heaven.  As was the man of dust, so also are those who are made of dust; and as is the heavenly Man, so also are those who are heavenly.  And as we have borne the image of the man of dust, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly Man." 1 Corinthians 15:46-49 NKJV

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