Matthew 5:32 NKJV
A3) Whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality (porneias) causes her to commit adultery (moichatai);
and
B2) whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery (moichatai).
Since the second half B2) is in solid agreement with all the verses under scrutiny.
Let us examine then Mat 5:32 NKJV, part A
A3) Whoever divorces his wife for any reason except (PORNEIAS) sexual immorality................... causes her to commit adultery (moichatai);
Same as saying
A3) Whoever divorces his wife for any reason except (PORNEIAS) sexually immoral relationship causes her to commit adultery (moichatai);
TWO WAYS TO UNDERSTAND "(PORNEIAS) SEXUAL IMMORALITY"
PORNEIAS = the 'marriage' itself is a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, an unlawful sham 'marriage' ~Catholic & Orthodox
PORNEIAS = the husband or wife has had a sexually immoral relationship, an unlawful union, during the marriage ~Western Protestant
The controversy over how this half a verse is to be understood involves how the Greek term "PORNEIAS" is understood:
Breaking it down
Whoever divorces his wife
A3.0).................................................................................................................causes her to commit adultery
A3.1) because .........(PORNEIAS) sexually immoral relationship DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery
A3.1M)............the 'marriage' is a sexually immoral relationship DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery
A3.1W)............the wife.......had a sexually immoral relationship DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery ?
A3.1H).............the husband had a sexually immoral relationship DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery ?
ANALYSIS:
A3.0) “Whoever divorces his wife causes her to commit adultery.” = “Whoever divorces his lawfully wedded wife causes her to commit adultery.” (Presumably when, driven by nature, she marries another = adultery). This is crystal clear and in complete harmony with the all the other A1) verses, Mark 10:11 & Luke 16:18.
A3.1M) “Whoever divorces his 'wife' because the 'marriage' is a sexually immoral relationship DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery." = "Whoever divorces his unlawfully wedded 'wife' DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery.” This is crystal clear and in complete harmony with the all the other verses – the couple were never lawfully married to begin with. Their divorce was actually REPENTING from unlawful sexual relationship (their unlawful “marriage”). Like Jesus said to the woman caught in the act of adultery, “Leave your unlawful sexual relationship and I forgive you.”
A3.1W) “Whoever divorces his wife because SHE had a sexually immoral relationship DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery.” QUESTIONABLE. Wife has affair.....husband then divorces guilty wife and somehow it DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery against him. QUESTIONABLE.
.....i) If guilty wife could not sexuallly control herself while married, much less will she keep from adultery after being denied sexual relations with her husband after he divorces her.
.....ii) If guilty wife goes on to marry another, whoever marries this divorced woman commits adultery along with her because God still sees her married to that first husband, B2), Matthew 5:32b and Matthew 19:9b and Luke 16:18b.
.....iii) The above two outcomes have God divided against Himself as to whether or not He still regards them united as “one flesh,” married.
A3.1H) “Whoever divorces his wife because HE had a sexually immoral relationship DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery.” Husband has affair, husband then divorces his wife and somehow it DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery. QUESTIONABLE.
QUESTIONABLE:
.....i) Because the guilty husband sexually sinned before divorcing his innocent wife, she loses all desire for sex, never to marry again? Why does she feel driven to commit adultery under every other circumstance then?
.....ii) Because the husband sexually sinned before divorcing his innocent wife, she may remarry without it being adultery against her 1st husband.
.....iii) But if the guilty husband remarries after divorcing his innocent wife, he commits adultery against her because God still sees them as married, Mark 10:11 & Luke 16:18a (A1)
.....iv) The above two outcomes have God divided against Himself as to whether or not He still regards them united as “one flesh,” married.
These last two would have Jesus saying that the only time divorcing a wife causes her to commit adultery is when there was no sexual immoraility involved in the marriage. This has Jesus saying that only when a sexually pure couple divorces does it cause the woman to commit adultery, and whoever marries her commits adultery along with her against her first husband who is now free to remarry. NONSENSE.
IN SUMMARY
Husband divorces his wife.....................................................................................................causes her to commit adultery.
Husband divorces his wife because its a sexually immoral relationship (porneias) DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery.
OR
Innocent husband divorces his innocent wife………………..causes her to commit adultery. NOT free to remarry
Innocent husband divorces his…….guilty wife DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery. ........free to remarry?
Guilty…….husband divorces his innocent wife DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery. ........free to remarry?
Guilty…….husband divorces his…….guilty wife DOES NOT cause her to commit adultery. ........free to remarry?
1 Timothy 6:3-4 NKJV
“If anyone teaches otherwise and does not consent to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which accords with godliness, he is proud, knowing nothing, but is obsessed with disputes and arguments over words”
Matthew 24:35
Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away.
KJV
Scriptures cited from New King James Version unless otherwise noted.